I have a range of static IPs I got from my ISP. What I want to do is to do as I do with the primary IP.
Set it up with a corresponding gateway like 192.168.1.1 and computers in the LAN can specify this, and use NAT to open ports etc.
So in example I have the public IP from ISP which is 1.2.3.194-1.2.3.197. 193 is the ISP gateway and 198 is the broadcast.
So I set up the router as normal with WAN, 1.2.3.194, and local IP 192.168.1.1.
Then I want 1.2.3.195 -> 192.168.1.2. Then a computer's setup has gateway 192.168.1.2 and has 1.2.3.194 as public IP.
Most guides I've seen only covers 1:1 NAT where the public WAN IP gets translated and masqueraded directly to a LAN IP to a computer. I suspect my setup involves another step with bridge.
This is the visual representation:
http://pastebin.com/embed_iframe.php?i=2u8dasah
Since I find no answers (believe me I have googled my *ss off), is this a very abnormal setup?
Thanks!
Set it up with a corresponding gateway like 192.168.1.1 and computers in the LAN can specify this, and use NAT to open ports etc.
So in example I have the public IP from ISP which is 1.2.3.194-1.2.3.197. 193 is the ISP gateway and 198 is the broadcast.
So I set up the router as normal with WAN, 1.2.3.194, and local IP 192.168.1.1.
Then I want 1.2.3.195 -> 192.168.1.2. Then a computer's setup has gateway 192.168.1.2 and has 1.2.3.194 as public IP.
Most guides I've seen only covers 1:1 NAT where the public WAN IP gets translated and masqueraded directly to a LAN IP to a computer. I suspect my setup involves another step with bridge.
This is the visual representation:
http://pastebin.com/embed_iframe.php?i=2u8dasah
Since I find no answers (believe me I have googled my *ss off), is this a very abnormal setup?
Thanks!