I'm just trying to wrap my head around this:
I was trying to setup a OpenVPN on my Asus router and successfully connect to it from my iPhone outside of my network, and after days of troubleshooting, it seems like the fault was because my ISP is using CG-NAT.
So I got a public IP (ipv4) from them. They wanted $5 a month for one but I told them to pay an additional monthly fee after the trouble I went through is not my style, so they gave me a public IP for free.
They asked me to give them the MAC address on the back of my router (1), even though from what I've read I'm supposed to give them the MAC address that can be found at Control Panel - Network and Internet - Network and Sharing Center - Change adapter settings - right click on ethernet and hit status - details - and there you can find the physical address (2). But oh well, I gave them the MAC at the back of the router.
After doing so and restarting the router, on Network Map in the router settings it said: ''Your ISP DHCP does not function properly.'' No internet connection. I told my ISP this and they had no clue what to do. They tried MAC address number 2 but said they couldn't find it in their logs.
After doing some research, I went into WAN and at the bottom pressed MAC clone, which automatically entered MAC address number 2, found in the control panel. Changed DHCP query frequency from aggressive to normal, and hit apply. This made the internet work again, but the IP address was the old 100.65.xx.xx CG-NAT.
They told me MAC number 2 had suddenly popped up in their logs, and they switched to that one, but it went back to ''Your ISP DHCP does not function properly.'' No internet.
It was getting late and ISP told me I had to call back tomorrow to continue the troubleshooting with them. I asked them to switch back to the other MAC (1) on the back of the router so that I at least could have a wi-fi connection during the evening.
I sat and read a few forum threads, and found someone who went into LAN - then IPTV, and changed ISP profile from None to Manual setting, and then on Internet VID, entered ''2'', and clicked apply. So I did and now, out of the blue, my WAN IP is a public IP, that matches the IP I get on https://whatismyipaddress.com/
I tried setting up a OpenVPN and sure enough now it works. Hurrah!
The question is, why does it work? I could call back my ISP but honestly, I don't think even they'll be able to comprehend it, as they told me to try to work this over with Asus instead.
Which MAC address should they get, MAC address 1, or 2? 1 works, I know that but why do I read everywhere that they should get MAC 2? Hell, even their own guide said I should give them MAC 2. What if I call them up and ask them to switch to MAC 2, what then? Will it still work?
What does the MAC clone thing do? It enters MAC 2 automatically, why? Why MAC 2 and not MAC 1?
The whole LAN - IPTV - Manual - VID 2 thing. Why did this fix it finally? I went back into it, removed the ''2'', applied, and now it still works, and I have a public IP. How?
I was trying to setup a OpenVPN on my Asus router and successfully connect to it from my iPhone outside of my network, and after days of troubleshooting, it seems like the fault was because my ISP is using CG-NAT.
So I got a public IP (ipv4) from them. They wanted $5 a month for one but I told them to pay an additional monthly fee after the trouble I went through is not my style, so they gave me a public IP for free.
They asked me to give them the MAC address on the back of my router (1), even though from what I've read I'm supposed to give them the MAC address that can be found at Control Panel - Network and Internet - Network and Sharing Center - Change adapter settings - right click on ethernet and hit status - details - and there you can find the physical address (2). But oh well, I gave them the MAC at the back of the router.
After doing so and restarting the router, on Network Map in the router settings it said: ''Your ISP DHCP does not function properly.'' No internet connection. I told my ISP this and they had no clue what to do. They tried MAC address number 2 but said they couldn't find it in their logs.
After doing some research, I went into WAN and at the bottom pressed MAC clone, which automatically entered MAC address number 2, found in the control panel. Changed DHCP query frequency from aggressive to normal, and hit apply. This made the internet work again, but the IP address was the old 100.65.xx.xx CG-NAT.
They told me MAC number 2 had suddenly popped up in their logs, and they switched to that one, but it went back to ''Your ISP DHCP does not function properly.'' No internet.
It was getting late and ISP told me I had to call back tomorrow to continue the troubleshooting with them. I asked them to switch back to the other MAC (1) on the back of the router so that I at least could have a wi-fi connection during the evening.
I sat and read a few forum threads, and found someone who went into LAN - then IPTV, and changed ISP profile from None to Manual setting, and then on Internet VID, entered ''2'', and clicked apply. So I did and now, out of the blue, my WAN IP is a public IP, that matches the IP I get on https://whatismyipaddress.com/
I tried setting up a OpenVPN and sure enough now it works. Hurrah!
The question is, why does it work? I could call back my ISP but honestly, I don't think even they'll be able to comprehend it, as they told me to try to work this over with Asus instead.
Which MAC address should they get, MAC address 1, or 2? 1 works, I know that but why do I read everywhere that they should get MAC 2? Hell, even their own guide said I should give them MAC 2. What if I call them up and ask them to switch to MAC 2, what then? Will it still work?
What does the MAC clone thing do? It enters MAC 2 automatically, why? Why MAC 2 and not MAC 1?
The whole LAN - IPTV - Manual - VID 2 thing. Why did this fix it finally? I went back into it, removed the ''2'', applied, and now it still works, and I have a public IP. How?
