As mentioned in title, I am looking for more information on if a switch will pass VLAN tag/header that was assigned by the Access Point, on to the router. I was recently able to snag a Netgear ProSafe GS728TP for $50, and want to understand potential impacts to my home network.
My setup has been Mikrotik hEX rb750gr3 for my router and an Access Point connected directly to one of its ports for wireless connectivity (as well as numerous wired pathways connected to the other ports). I have 5 SSIDs on the access point, each assigned its own VLAN ID. I then have each of those VLAN IDs set up on the router as their own interface(under that port), with their own network, address pool, and DHCP server (and cross network communication dropped).
With the "new toy", i.e. the ProSafe GS728TP, I would like plug the Access point into the switch to leverage the POE capability of the switch to power the access point (currently I just have an extension cord run up to it for powering it), as well as likely running some of the wired branches into it instead of directly into the router. I am still somewhat new to VLANs, so I am trying to understand where the VLAN tagging/untagging on the switch comes into the picture. Does tagging a port / making it a member of a VLAN mean that all communications on that switch port gets assigned that VLAN ID by the switch? Does tagging a port / making it a member of a VLAN just let the switch know that there will be VLAN header information coming in on that port (assigned elsewhere), and I need to set up each of the VLANs on the switch and tag them to that port in order for the VLAN header data to make it to the router? If i just leave everything alone on that port, would the switch pass the VLAN header data assigned at the Access Point, or would it strip it and give it the default VLAN ID "1"? How do I configure the switch for that port, so that any VLAN header data assigned by the Access Point, makes it to the router intact, so that it can be segmented correctly?
My setup has been Mikrotik hEX rb750gr3 for my router and an Access Point connected directly to one of its ports for wireless connectivity (as well as numerous wired pathways connected to the other ports). I have 5 SSIDs on the access point, each assigned its own VLAN ID. I then have each of those VLAN IDs set up on the router as their own interface(under that port), with their own network, address pool, and DHCP server (and cross network communication dropped).
With the "new toy", i.e. the ProSafe GS728TP, I would like plug the Access point into the switch to leverage the POE capability of the switch to power the access point (currently I just have an extension cord run up to it for powering it), as well as likely running some of the wired branches into it instead of directly into the router. I am still somewhat new to VLANs, so I am trying to understand where the VLAN tagging/untagging on the switch comes into the picture. Does tagging a port / making it a member of a VLAN mean that all communications on that switch port gets assigned that VLAN ID by the switch? Does tagging a port / making it a member of a VLAN just let the switch know that there will be VLAN header information coming in on that port (assigned elsewhere), and I need to set up each of the VLANs on the switch and tag them to that port in order for the VLAN header data to make it to the router? If i just leave everything alone on that port, would the switch pass the VLAN header data assigned at the Access Point, or would it strip it and give it the default VLAN ID "1"? How do I configure the switch for that port, so that any VLAN header data assigned by the Access Point, makes it to the router intact, so that it can be segmented correctly?